Posted By Nearly Normal on 10/7/2008 at 11:18 PM
I run across a case where one owner of written road easement rights
grants the easement to a third party without the owner of the servient
parcel ever being included in the process. I think many people figure
that an appurtenant easement can just be assigned to some down-stream
Can you point to the definitive law or legal presumption that prevents such piggybacking from being valid?
the way I don't ask this question for kicks or for academic reasons...
I am putting together some testimony in case the question arises in
court, so your thoughts are appreciated.
October 8, 2008