Posted By Kent McMillan on 5/8/2008 at 12:19 AM
In a thread now far below, a poster speculated that a self-serving affidavit recorded in the public records by a stranger to title claiming an interest in some tract or parcel of land along the lines of "I claim ownership of the following described tract or parcel of land ..." constituted record title.
In Texas, this would be bizarre to call this "record title". At best, it is a memorandum of writing setting forth the limits of alleged possession.
Is there anywhere in the United States where abstracts of title would be expected to include whatever affidavit or other instrument any stranger to title might record or that such a claim would be considered to be equivalent to "record title"?
Best regards,
Kent McMillan, RPLS Austin TX
Modified By Kent McMillan on 5/8/2008 at 12:24 AM
